, &c., and this,
although in the Sixth Amendment, the terms _him_ and _his_ are alone
used. The Courts long ago decided that Statutes were of general bearing,
as is fully true of the Declaration and Constitution, which are supreme
statutes. The Fifteenth Amendment does not specifically exclude right of
male citizens to vote, because they are _male_ citizens, therefore, male
citizens are of necessity included in the right of voting. It does not
specifically exclude female citizens from the right of voting, because
they are female citizens, therefore, female citizens are of necessity
included in the right of voting--a right which the United States cannot
abridge. No male citizen can claim that he, as a male citizen, is
included, save by implication, and save on the general grounds that he
is not specifically excluded, he is necessarily included. Can the
United States, at pleasure, take from its own citizens the right of
voting, or abridge that right? Has it the right to take from citizens of
States the right of voting? Are citizens of States simply protected
against States, and can the United States now, at will, step in and deny
or abridge the right of voting to all its male citizens simply because
they are male? If it has that power over its female citizens, it has the
same power over its male citizens.
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